Regarding the mode of “terram” in Deuteronomy 28:38

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
5
down vote

favorite












Deuteronomy 28:38 reads:




Sementem multam jacies in terram, et modicum congregabis: quia locustæ devorabunt omnia.




I think the first phrase before the comma has the following structure (but reordered; e.g. accusatives come before the verb, and subject is implicit in the verb):




[subject/nominative] [verb] [object/accusative] preposition [ablative]




However, terram is in accusative, instead of in ablative (terrā). The object of the phrase is clearly sementis (hence the accusative mode sementem), whereas in is indicating an ablative of place. Why is then terram in accusative?




Quaestio brevis. Quid "terram" est accusativum in Deuteronomium 28:38? Non debet sit ablativum?







share|improve this question

























    up vote
    5
    down vote

    favorite












    Deuteronomy 28:38 reads:




    Sementem multam jacies in terram, et modicum congregabis: quia locustæ devorabunt omnia.




    I think the first phrase before the comma has the following structure (but reordered; e.g. accusatives come before the verb, and subject is implicit in the verb):




    [subject/nominative] [verb] [object/accusative] preposition [ablative]




    However, terram is in accusative, instead of in ablative (terrā). The object of the phrase is clearly sementis (hence the accusative mode sementem), whereas in is indicating an ablative of place. Why is then terram in accusative?




    Quaestio brevis. Quid "terram" est accusativum in Deuteronomium 28:38? Non debet sit ablativum?







    share|improve this question























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite











      Deuteronomy 28:38 reads:




      Sementem multam jacies in terram, et modicum congregabis: quia locustæ devorabunt omnia.




      I think the first phrase before the comma has the following structure (but reordered; e.g. accusatives come before the verb, and subject is implicit in the verb):




      [subject/nominative] [verb] [object/accusative] preposition [ablative]




      However, terram is in accusative, instead of in ablative (terrā). The object of the phrase is clearly sementis (hence the accusative mode sementem), whereas in is indicating an ablative of place. Why is then terram in accusative?




      Quaestio brevis. Quid "terram" est accusativum in Deuteronomium 28:38? Non debet sit ablativum?







      share|improve this question













      Deuteronomy 28:38 reads:




      Sementem multam jacies in terram, et modicum congregabis: quia locustæ devorabunt omnia.




      I think the first phrase before the comma has the following structure (but reordered; e.g. accusatives come before the verb, and subject is implicit in the verb):




      [subject/nominative] [verb] [object/accusative] preposition [ablative]




      However, terram is in accusative, instead of in ablative (terrā). The object of the phrase is clearly sementis (hence the accusative mode sementem), whereas in is indicating an ablative of place. Why is then terram in accusative?




      Quaestio brevis. Quid "terram" est accusativum in Deuteronomium 28:38? Non debet sit ablativum?









      share|improve this question












      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Aug 6 at 13:35
























      asked Aug 6 at 12:17









      luchonacho

      2,6511839




      2,6511839




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted










          Not all prepositions are created equal.



          Some prepositions need to be followed by ablative as you say. Examples are cum (e.g. cum Ipso), sine (sine Deo nihil), de (de hoc mundo).



          Yet most prepositions need to be followed by accusative, like ante (ante constitutionem mundi), per (per Ipsum), post (post mortem).



          A number of prepositions may be followed by both acc. and abl., with different meanings, as in, sub, super. The rule of thumb with these three is that accusative adds movement to the meaning of the preposition:




          • in+[abl] → in, on, at;


          • in+[acc] → to, into, towards.

          In the quote from Deuteronomy, the seed is to be thrown to the ground.



          See also: i) L&S entry for in, and ii) this list (and also this one) of prepositions and the cases they are followed by (none of both is exhaustive, and the exact content of a complete list is disputed).



          In the lists you can see that some are said to be followed by genitive, like ope, and tenus. These are listed by some as prepositions, but not universally agreed as such. My perception in this issue is they are nouns in the process of mutating from/to prepositions by gaining/losing cases (either created by generalization or falling out of use). Note that ope is said by L&S to be the ablative of ops, which itself is not attested, being another example of a defective paradigm. Other cases of ops are also rare.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:20






          • 1




            @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
            – Rafael
            Aug 6 at 14:30






          • 2




            That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:38










          Your Answer







          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "644"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: false,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: null,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flatin.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f6976%2fregarding-the-mode-of-terram-in-deuteronomy-2838%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted










          Not all prepositions are created equal.



          Some prepositions need to be followed by ablative as you say. Examples are cum (e.g. cum Ipso), sine (sine Deo nihil), de (de hoc mundo).



          Yet most prepositions need to be followed by accusative, like ante (ante constitutionem mundi), per (per Ipsum), post (post mortem).



          A number of prepositions may be followed by both acc. and abl., with different meanings, as in, sub, super. The rule of thumb with these three is that accusative adds movement to the meaning of the preposition:




          • in+[abl] → in, on, at;


          • in+[acc] → to, into, towards.

          In the quote from Deuteronomy, the seed is to be thrown to the ground.



          See also: i) L&S entry for in, and ii) this list (and also this one) of prepositions and the cases they are followed by (none of both is exhaustive, and the exact content of a complete list is disputed).



          In the lists you can see that some are said to be followed by genitive, like ope, and tenus. These are listed by some as prepositions, but not universally agreed as such. My perception in this issue is they are nouns in the process of mutating from/to prepositions by gaining/losing cases (either created by generalization or falling out of use). Note that ope is said by L&S to be the ablative of ops, which itself is not attested, being another example of a defective paradigm. Other cases of ops are also rare.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:20






          • 1




            @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
            – Rafael
            Aug 6 at 14:30






          • 2




            That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:38














          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted










          Not all prepositions are created equal.



          Some prepositions need to be followed by ablative as you say. Examples are cum (e.g. cum Ipso), sine (sine Deo nihil), de (de hoc mundo).



          Yet most prepositions need to be followed by accusative, like ante (ante constitutionem mundi), per (per Ipsum), post (post mortem).



          A number of prepositions may be followed by both acc. and abl., with different meanings, as in, sub, super. The rule of thumb with these three is that accusative adds movement to the meaning of the preposition:




          • in+[abl] → in, on, at;


          • in+[acc] → to, into, towards.

          In the quote from Deuteronomy, the seed is to be thrown to the ground.



          See also: i) L&S entry for in, and ii) this list (and also this one) of prepositions and the cases they are followed by (none of both is exhaustive, and the exact content of a complete list is disputed).



          In the lists you can see that some are said to be followed by genitive, like ope, and tenus. These are listed by some as prepositions, but not universally agreed as such. My perception in this issue is they are nouns in the process of mutating from/to prepositions by gaining/losing cases (either created by generalization or falling out of use). Note that ope is said by L&S to be the ablative of ops, which itself is not attested, being another example of a defective paradigm. Other cases of ops are also rare.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:20






          • 1




            @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
            – Rafael
            Aug 6 at 14:30






          • 2




            That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:38












          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted






          Not all prepositions are created equal.



          Some prepositions need to be followed by ablative as you say. Examples are cum (e.g. cum Ipso), sine (sine Deo nihil), de (de hoc mundo).



          Yet most prepositions need to be followed by accusative, like ante (ante constitutionem mundi), per (per Ipsum), post (post mortem).



          A number of prepositions may be followed by both acc. and abl., with different meanings, as in, sub, super. The rule of thumb with these three is that accusative adds movement to the meaning of the preposition:




          • in+[abl] → in, on, at;


          • in+[acc] → to, into, towards.

          In the quote from Deuteronomy, the seed is to be thrown to the ground.



          See also: i) L&S entry for in, and ii) this list (and also this one) of prepositions and the cases they are followed by (none of both is exhaustive, and the exact content of a complete list is disputed).



          In the lists you can see that some are said to be followed by genitive, like ope, and tenus. These are listed by some as prepositions, but not universally agreed as such. My perception in this issue is they are nouns in the process of mutating from/to prepositions by gaining/losing cases (either created by generalization or falling out of use). Note that ope is said by L&S to be the ablative of ops, which itself is not attested, being another example of a defective paradigm. Other cases of ops are also rare.






          share|improve this answer















          Not all prepositions are created equal.



          Some prepositions need to be followed by ablative as you say. Examples are cum (e.g. cum Ipso), sine (sine Deo nihil), de (de hoc mundo).



          Yet most prepositions need to be followed by accusative, like ante (ante constitutionem mundi), per (per Ipsum), post (post mortem).



          A number of prepositions may be followed by both acc. and abl., with different meanings, as in, sub, super. The rule of thumb with these three is that accusative adds movement to the meaning of the preposition:




          • in+[abl] → in, on, at;


          • in+[acc] → to, into, towards.

          In the quote from Deuteronomy, the seed is to be thrown to the ground.



          See also: i) L&S entry for in, and ii) this list (and also this one) of prepositions and the cases they are followed by (none of both is exhaustive, and the exact content of a complete list is disputed).



          In the lists you can see that some are said to be followed by genitive, like ope, and tenus. These are listed by some as prepositions, but not universally agreed as such. My perception in this issue is they are nouns in the process of mutating from/to prepositions by gaining/losing cases (either created by generalization or falling out of use). Note that ope is said by L&S to be the ablative of ops, which itself is not attested, being another example of a defective paradigm. Other cases of ops are also rare.







          share|improve this answer















          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Aug 6 at 15:59


























          answered Aug 6 at 12:57









          Rafael

          5,253936




          5,253936







          • 1




            Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:20






          • 1




            @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
            – Rafael
            Aug 6 at 14:30






          • 2




            That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:38












          • 1




            Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:20






          • 1




            @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
            – Rafael
            Aug 6 at 14:30






          • 2




            That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
            – luchonacho
            Aug 6 at 14:38







          1




          1




          Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
          – luchonacho
          Aug 6 at 14:20




          Oh no, more exceptions to learn! Thanks. I just realised the wikipedia entry on the ablative makes similar comments about the use of prepositions, distinguishing the case of in.
          – luchonacho
          Aug 6 at 14:20




          1




          1




          @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
          – Rafael
          Aug 6 at 14:30




          @luchonacho hahaha, ánimo. Back in the day it helped me a lot to learn a handful of texts that were already familiar to me in Spanish by memory, and make sense of them afterwards. E.g. Pater Noster qui es in caelis... et ne nos inducas in tentationem...
          – Rafael
          Aug 6 at 14:30




          2




          2




          That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
          – luchonacho
          Aug 6 at 14:38




          That's a great example of both uses of in. ¡Gracias!
          – luchonacho
          Aug 6 at 14:38












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flatin.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f6976%2fregarding-the-mode-of-terram-in-deuteronomy-2838%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          Popular posts from this blog

          Chat program with C++ and SFML

          Function to Return a JSON Like Objects Using VBA Collections and Arrays

          Will my employers contract hold up in court?